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Amazon SOA-C01 Exam Dumps

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Amazon Amazon AWS Certified Associate SOA-C01 Practice Test 1-13

QUESTION 1
A user has created a VPC with public and private subnets using the VPC Wizard. The VPC has CIDR 20.0.0.0/16. The
private subnet uses CIDR 20.0.0.0/24. Which of the below mentioned entries are required in the main route table to
allow the instances in VPC to communicate with each other?
A. Destination : 20.0.0.0/24 and Target : VPC
B. Destination : 20.0.0.0/16 and Target : ALL
C. Destination : 20.0.0.0/0 and Target : ALL
D. Destination : 20.0.0.0/24 and Target : Local
Correct Answer: D
Option A doesn\\’t use standard AWS terminology (you don\\’t route to “VPC”), and because the mask is /24, it would
only allow the instances in the private subnet to communicate with each other, not all the instances in the VPC as the
question asked. Here\\’s an example VPC route table for a public subnet (i.e. it routes to the IGW). Option D is the
correct one.


QUESTION 2
A company\\’s data retention policy dictates that backups be stored for exactly two years. After that time, the data must
be deleted. How can Amazon EBS snapshots be managed to conform to this data retention policy?
A. Use an Amazon S3 lifecycle policy to delete snapshots older than two years.
B. Configure Amazon Inspector to find and delete old EBS snapshots.
C. Schedule an AWS Lambda function using Amazon CloudWatch Events to periodically run a script to delete old
snapshots.
D. Configure an Amazon CloudWatch alarm to trigger the launch of an AWS CloudFormation template that will clean the
older snapshots.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A user has created an EBS volume of 10 GB and attached it to a running instance. The user is trying to access EBS for
first time. Which of the below mentioned options is the correct statement with respect to a first time EBS access?
A. The volume will show a size of 8 GB
B. The volume will show a loss of the IOPS performance the first time
C. The volume will be blank
D. If the EBS is mounted it will ask the user to create a file system
Correct Answer: B
A user can create an EBS volume either from a snapshot or as a blank volume. If the volume is from a snapshot it will
not be blank. The volume shows the right size only as long as it is mounted. This shows that the file system is created.
When the user is accessing the volume the AWS EBS will wipe out the block storage or instantiate from the snapshot.
Thus, the volume will show a loss of IOPS. It is recommended that the user should pre warm the EBS before use to
achieve better IO

QUESTION 4
An application is being migrated to AWS with the requirement that archived data be retained for at least 7 years. What
Amazon Glacier configuration option should be used to meet this compliance requirement?
A. A Glacier data retrieval policy
B. A Glacier vault access policy
C. A Glacier vault lock policy
D. A Glacier vault notification
Correct Answer: C
Reference: click here

QUESTION 5
A SysOps Administrator must remove public IP addresses from all Amazon EC2 Instances to prevent exposure to the
internet. However, many corporate applications running on those EC2 instances need to access Amazon S3 buckets.
The
administrator is tasked with allowing the EC2 instances to continue to access the S3 buckets.
Which solutions can be used? (Select Two).
A. Deploy a NAT Gateway and configure the route tables according in the VPC where the EC2 instances are running.
B. Modify the network ACLs with the private IP addresses in the routes to connect to Amazon S3.
C. Modify the security groups on the EC2 instances with private IP addresses in the routes to connect to Amazon S3.
D. Set up AWS Direct connect and configure a virtual interface between the EC2 instances and the S3 buckets.
E. Set up VPC endpoint in the VPC where the EC2 instances are running and configure the routes tables accordingly.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 6
An Application performs read-heavy operations on an Amazon Aurora DB instance. The SysOps Administrator monitors
the CPUUtilization CloudWatch metric and has recently seen it increase to 90%. The Administrator would like to understand what is driving the CPU surge.
Which of the following should the Administrator additionally monitor to understand the CPU surge?
A. FreeableMemory and DatabaseConnections to understand the amount of available RAM and number of connections
to DB instance.
B. FreeableMemory and EngineUptime to understand the amount of available RAM and the amount of time the instance
has been up and running.
C. DatabaseConnections and AuroraReplicaLag for the number of connections to the DB instance and the amount of
lag when replicating updates from the primary instance.
D. DatabaseConnections and InsertLatency for the number of connections to the DB instance and latency for insert
queries.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
A company\\’s Marketing department generates gigabytes of assets each day and stores them locally. They would like
to protect the files by backing them up to AWS. All the assets should be stored on the cloud, but the most recent assets
should be available locally for low latency access.
Which AWS service meets the requirements?
A. Amazon EBS
B. Amazon EFS
C. Amazon S3
D. AWS Storage Gateway
Correct Answer: D
Reference: click here

QUESTION 8
When preparing for a compliance assessment of your system built inside of AWS. what are three best-practices for you
to prepare for an audit? (Choose three.)
A. Gather evidence of your IT operational controls
B. Request and obtain applicable third-party audited AWS compliance reports and certifications
C. Request and obtain a compliance and security tour of an AWS data center for a pre-assessment security review
D. Request and obtain approval from AWS to perform relevant network scans and in-depth penetration tests of your
system\\’s Instances and endpoints
E. Schedule meetings with AWS\\’s third-party auditors to provide evidence of AWS compliance that maps to your control objectives
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 9
A user is running one instance for only 3 hours every day. The user wants to save some cost with the instance. Which of
the below mentioned Reserved Instance categories is advised in this case?
A. The user should not use RI; instead only go with the on-demand pricing
B. The user should use the AWS high utilized RI
C. The user should use the AWS medium utilized RI
D. The user should use the AWS low utilized RI
Correct Answer: A
The AWS Reserved Instance provides the user with an option to save some money by paying a one-time fixed amount
and then save on the hourly rate. It is advisable that if the user is having 30% or more usage of an instance per day, he
should go for a RI. If the user is going to use an EC2 instance for more than 2200-2500 hours per year, RI will help the
user save some cost. Here, the instance is not going to run for less than 1500 hours. Thus, it is advisable that the user
should use the on-demand pricing.

QUESTION 10
A company wants to identify specific Amazon EC2 instances that are underutilized and the estimated cost savings for
each instance. How can this be done with MINIMAL effort?
A. Use AWS Budgets to report on low utilization of EC2 instances.
B. Run an AWS Systems Manager script to check for low memory utilization of EC2 instances.
C. Run Cost Explorer to look for low utilization of EC2 instances.
D. Use Amazon CloudWatch metrics to identify EC2 instances with low utilization.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: click here
 

QUESTION 11
An application hosted on AWS is going through an external compliance assessment. An Administrator has been tasked
with providing proof of physical security at the facilities that are hosting the application.
What should the Administrator do?
A. Work with AWS support to schedule a tour for the auditors.
B. Send a copy of the AWS Security whitepaper to the auditors.
C. Obtain a relevant report from AWS Artifact and share it with the auditors.
D. Find the address for the AWS Direct Connect facility on the AWS Website.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
A user has a weighing plant. The user measures the weight of some goods every 5 minutes and sends data to AWS
CloudWatch for monitoring and tracking. Which of the below mentioned parameters is mandatory for the user to include
in the request list?
A. Value
B. Namespace
C. Metric Name
D. Time zone
Correct Answer: B  AWS CloudWatch supports the custom metrics. The user can always capture the custom data and upload the data to
CloudWatch using CLI or APIs. The user can publish the data to CloudWatch as single data points or as an aggregated
set of data points called a statistic set. The user has always to include the namespace as part of the request. The user
can supply a file instead of the metric name. If the user does not supply the time zone, it accepts the current time. If the
user is sending the data as a single data point it will have parameters, such as value. However, if the user is sending as
an aggregate it will have parameters, such as statistic-values.
 

QUESTION 13
When rebalancing, Auto Scaling launches new instances before terminating the old ones, so that re-balancing does not
compromise the performance or availability of your application. Because Auto Scaling attempts to launch new instances
before terminating the old ones, being at or near the speci-fied maximum capacity could impede or completely halt
rebalancing activities. What does Auto Scaling do in order to avoid this problem?
A. It can temporarily exceed the specified maximum capacity of a group by a 20 percent margin (or by a 2-instance
margin, whichever is greater) during a rebalancing activity.
B. It can add new reserved instances you have defined.
C. It can temporarily exceed the specified maximum capacity of a group by a 10 percent margin (or by a 1-instance
margin, whichever is greater) during a rebalancing activity.
D. It can temporarily exceed the specified maximum capacity of a group by a 5 percent margin (or by a 1-instance
margin, whichever is greater) during a rebalancing activity.
Correct Answer: C

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